Franglais

[Brvtvs]

What is your opinion on Franglais? Is this linguistic conglomeration not just a step in the right direction (e.g. Entente cordiale, post-WWII partition of Germany), rather than all the wars between France and Angleterre in the past? Consider Brittany, Normandy, Aquitaine and Canada's dual natures. Does France more belong to itself, Britain or Spain? The latter two were important because of the Angevins and Bourbons. Spain's link with France is also because of Burgundy and Navarre, but Spain as a territory was less connected to France throughout Muslim rule. The Isle of France is left with itself, or perhaps the two Lorraines/two Germanies. You know the Gallic Prefecture in the Roman Empire contained both Britain and Spain. The lingual division between Oil and Occitan is that of Britannic and Hispanic influences in Gaul.

[Cirrus]

Originally Posted by Brvtvs

What is your opinion on Franglais? Is this linguistic conglomeration not just a step in the right direction, rather than all the wars between France and Angleterre in the past?

Of course not, it's more a symptom of the americanization of our society.

Originally Posted by Brvtvs

Consider Brittany, Normandy, Aquitaine and Canada's dual natures.

I think that those exemples are completely different, since the English influence is not the same between Normandy, Aquitaine or Canada. The first were dominated by England the Middle Ages, but only as fiefdoms, whereas Canada was an English colony. And Brittany has its own culture, neither really English nor French.

Originally Posted by Brvtvs

Does France more belong to itself, Britain or Spain?

When does France belonged to Britain or Spain ? There were just historical links, but no subordination (expect during the war with England).
France is much more than just an area of influence between Britain and Spain, even in term of culture.

But in fact, I don't really understand : what's the point between the 'Franglais' and those historical exemples ?

[Brvtvs]

Originally Posted by Cirrus

Of course not, it's more a symptom of the americanization of our society.

I think it is more of a general progression of history. The US considers its immediate European ancestors to be both English and French, just republican rather than monarchical as in Canada.

Originally Posted by Cirrus

I think that those exemples are completely different, since the English influence is not the same between Normandy, Aquitaine or Canada. The first were dominated by England the Middle Ages, but only as fiefdoms, whereas Canada was an English colony. And Brittany has its own culture, neither really English nor French.

These are Anglo-French links, regardless of time period. Canada was discovered by the English, colonised by the French and then conquered by the English. Being Breton, of all people, you should vouch for the English/British element in France/Gaul. You know the Bretons took over England with the Normans and that they relied on the English for independence over the centuries. Was it not Francis II who gave Welsh Henry Tudor his blessing in the Wars of the Roses, apparently legitimising the Tudor claim to the Breton fief of Richemont in the North of England (like the Houses of Lancaster and York themselves), from whence most post-Reformation English Catholics staged their rebellions and conspiracies? This was all a stepping stone to the union with Scotland, since they (Percy of Northumberland and Neville of Westmoreland) were exiled by Queen Elizabeth as defectors to Mary, Queen of Scots. You do know that Conan IV, Duke of Brittany married Margaret of Huntingdon (granddaughter of David of Scotland)?

Originally Posted by Cirrus

When does France belonged to Britain or Spain ? There were just historical links, but no subordination (expect during the war with England).

Consider the Bourbons of Navarre taking over France and legalising Huguenot culture, then the War of the Spanish Succession in which Spain and Portugal pretty much stole the Capetians to the Bonapartist favour in France. Exit Capetians to Iberia, in come Bonapartes from Italy.

Originally Posted by Cirrus

But in fact, I don't really understand : what's the point between the 'Franglais' and those historical exemples ? France is much more than just an area of influence between Britain and Spain, even in term of culture.

I did propose the counter idea, that Britain and Spain are elements of Gallic expansion. The great distance between two separate polities and elements of the French, mean that differences can be exaggerated. Remember the Auld Alliance and the Anglo-Spanish marriages? This was all interwoven among lands which came to have absolute claims to the New World as well. For instance, Louisiana was passed between New France and New Spain. It is really interesting that all their claims were supported by Italian explorers (Columbus, Vespucci, Cabot, Verrazzano) in a Catholic world. This sets Western Europe in a truly unique sort of culture that not only reaches back to the division of the Roman Empire, but also to the Renaissance. Perhaps the Avignon Papacy was another concentration of Western Europe under French domination, since Constantinople was being lost to the Muslims anyways. What it all proves, is that xenophobia between West European nations should be done away with, since they are all connected by French influences apart from a Roman base.