[Edit: split from "Northwest European racial type".
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Originally Posted by Mynydd
I don't assume that they were all Nordid. But that detail was not important for my question, at least on a first stage.
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Alright, understood.
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Still, Nordid or not, the question remains if their spread was not more in the form of small dominant groups over local populations who also imposed their language in many cases.
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It has been common that a group impose their language and assimilate into the mass. There are exceptions though. Just think of England:
http://www.iol.co.za/index.php?set_i...3228321565B216
But the more important question is the relation of this mass and the invaders. I think the difference must have been smaller in the British Ises (particularly England) than Central/Southeast Europe (eg Tirol). Much of Britain may have been Northwest European before the Anglo-Saxon and Viking incomers.