[Awar]

Originally Posted by Milesian

It could be indicative of enviromental pressures being exerted on the population group. some reason causes mortality to rise, life expectancies to fall, reproduction occurs earlier to survive, a higher turnover of generations. It could be caused by famine, drought, disease, war, etc

Just a theory.

True, but that kind of influence would have to span for some 10.000 years,
constantly.

That would be interesting. That would propose a new model. Namely, that the first Western Europeans didn't enter the continent from North Africa or travel from the near east, but rather came from Central Asia.

Nothing new really. R people did make that route.

I dislike the comparison between something I see as primarly a cultural term on one hand, an specific genetics on the other. I generally don't regard the Celtic culture as being comprised of a single homogenous people, considering an area from the Atlantic to the Black Sea, the Mediterranian to the North Sea has been Celtic at some point.

It is undoubtedly Celtic in so far as it is overwhelmingly common in people with a Celtic culture today. Whether it was the sole Y-Chromosome marker in the people of the Northern Urnfield culture who went on to be known as the Celts is, as you say, questionable.

What today's Micks, Spicks and Frogs have as HG is of no consequence

That is one possibility. Personally though, I dislike the idea of static, stationery peoples who apparently don't migrate yet their culture spreads through entire continents with neighbouring peoples suddenly abandoning their own to embrace new foreign ones. I think it possibly happened to some degree, but not without population movement as well to some degree.

Of course. I dislike absolute theories.

In the words of Dean R. Snow,professor of anthropology at the Pennsylvania State University, - "There are so many good examples of change associated with the migration of whole societies or dominant subsets of them, that any major change over time that can be observed archaeologically is likely to have involved migration in one of its many forms, however minor. We should be assuming population movement as a first principle rather than denying it."

But, I honestly doubt that migrations happened in the way historians
imagine it... with big hordes of men conquering shit, raping and pillaging etc. I think that in previous times, people simply weren't 'nationalists' holding on to their culture like it's a part of their 'identity'.

As for no change in Y-Chromosome frequency, it could merely mean that the early Celts had same genetic marker frequencies as the people they spread out and encountered in the west.

Could be... but I'd sooner bet my money on original Celts making a cultural impact on their most immediate R1b neighburs, and then, the R1b neighbours making an impact on their western R1b neighbours, and so on, and so on...