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Old Saturday, February 9th, 2008
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Default Re: AW: What is Intellectual Property?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Marulus View Post
Phoenician alphabet came into being from the Hieroglyphic script, via the Protosinaitic script. (...) From Phoenician the Greek alphabet came into being, then from Greek the Latin one (as well as - later on - Armenian, Georgian and Ethiopic scripts).
Thank you for enlighting us, Marulus. But, may I make just a little correction? It's most likely that the Greek alphabêt came to the Romans via the Etruscans.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Marulus View Post
The script of the old India, brahmi, is also derived from the Phoenician syllabary, with possibly some Aramaic influences. It is a kind of enigma, as to how Phoenician script came to India (possibly through commerial roots or through the imposition from above, by the Persian or the post-Alexandrine empires).
I'm no expert, but I think that commercial route seems likely, and we don't know yet how far the Phoenicians could have travelled.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Marulus View Post
In this sense I said the whole world, except the Chinese, Koreans and the Japanese, should pay royalties for the intellectual property to the Old Egyptians, if the principle of the intellectual property were enforced and carried out consistently. The Old Egyptians not being around any more, maybe Copts should be the beneficiaries. They would become the richest people on earth.
Do you think they really need that? I mean, they are hated enough in Egypt.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Marulus View Post
Other scripts, like the cuneiform Sumerian (and then later Akkadian derived therefrom), Mayan pictographs, script of the valley of Indus (Mohenjo Daro and Harappa) and some other scattered remnants (like the tablets of Tartaria mentioned by you, jokingly) finished in a dead end.
Yes, many dead ends indeed, including from the Stone Age (there is a case in Glozel, France).
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