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Old Saturday, December 8th, 2007
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Default Re: Did the ''Vikings'' defeat the Germanics or not?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Mynydd View Post
Could you define both "Vikings" and "Germanics" in the intended context? Or according to your views.

Germanic just a bunch of '' Indo European language manipulation'' that all

Quote:
"There is no abrupt change, which is what we could reasonably expect. An explanation is that a Germanic people were already in Orkney and Shetland well before 790AD. We don’t see one Germanic people, the Vikings, arrive because a very similar Germanic people, the English, were already here.

“These early Anglo-Saxon settlers stayed where they were. When the Vikings arrived they merged with them and with the other ethnic groups of Orkney and Shetland. Because their language was so similar to that spoken by the Vikings there is a process of language mixing, which means that Norn reflects these English language roots, along with the Viking language roots.

“Among the already rich ethnic heritage of every Orcadian can now be counted a few early English genes. Orcadians are descended from the very earliest English inhabitants of the British Isles, present in Orkney a century or more earlier than their invasion of England.”
I can see in this text the definition of Germanic are '' Viking are been articulated differently, like I say culture shifted so these days every things Germanic just a puking stories
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