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Originally Posted by Cynan
But to suggest, as Oppenheimer does, that since 58% of English inhabitants carry the Iberian gene
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I have very serious doubts that that would be the case.
Notice that he states that it ranges from a low peak in Fakenham, of 59%. That would make the average so much higher, perhaps even at rates of 70%+. It is not realistic.
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All it proves to me is that--as with the brown-eyed gene over the blue-eyed gene--Iberian genes simply dominate over Germanic
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Iberian genes do dominate over Germanic. No argument there.
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and perhaps Celtic genes.
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In the Peninsula, much like in the Islands, the "Keltic" input is assumed to have been overwhelmingly a fact of aculturation. A case of an adstratum of warrior types over a substratum of native types. There seems to be agreement in that generally invasions have not carried out significant changes in populations, unless accompanied or followed by larger migrations.
With regards to differences such as variations in pigmentation and morphology, you must also consider that for the formation of those genetic haplogroups we would be dealing with tens of thousands of years of difference until the formation of stable anthropomorphic individuals close to modern ones.
In other words, genotype is assumed to predate phenotype enough to have allowed for adaptive traits.
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