[Almost a Christian]

Originally Posted by Timo

Not likely. Frances loss was due to a large part that Germany was a large industrial power of the time. France was rather slow to industrialize, unlike Germany and Britian, which were the leaders (along with America) in the field. Germany's railways were much more modern and established, allowing fast movement of troops over extreamly long distances. Only after their loss did they see the flaw and correct it in time for the first world war. Even then, they needed the help of the allied powers not to be overrun by Germany.

Your point is well taken, Germany had at that point pioneering new technologies such as the quick transfer of troops by railway as well as being at having at their disposal the highest quality of military expertise…..but one must also bear in mind the inadequacies of the leadership of France…..Napoleon the III was variously accused of having neglected French military prowess in favour of the trappings that befitted an emperor (great boulevards & the like)…..also France was inhibited by acute centralisation where no one was granted any liberty of action….thus everybody waited in paralysis for orders from above that never came…..


Would an ordinary statesman have perhaps realised the problems that afflicted France
& take measures to address them…..they might’nd have won the war but would they have inflicted enough damage to deter say Catholic Bavaria from joining Bismarck’s great vision…..?

Originally Posted by Timo

Even then, they needed the help of the allied powers not to be overrun by Germany.

What an astonishing achievement for Germany…no one ever speaks of this now though……odd that isn't it?