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Originally Posted by Pandur
From the post of Janez, I conclude, it shall be hard to restrain 'Middle Eastern' origin exclusively on I1b: "Thus, it appears that I1a, I1b, and I1c all diverged from I* in the Late Upper Paleolithic/Mesolithic period..."
Circa 28,000-23,000 years ago races of what we know now as 'the Middle East' weren't the same as now or in more recent past.
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Perhaps when Y-lineages are in question. The Middle East was settled with homo sapiens far longer than Europe was. So, if there was any physical appearance change, it's probably that the Europeans became different ( due to specific climat ).
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Besides, we all had to come from somewhere, otherwise the entire continent would be settled exclusively by Cromagnon/Paleolithic inhabitants.
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Well, 80% of European DNA is Palaeolithic, the fact that the phenotype changed doesn't surprise me, after all, the climat did change, eating habits changed etc. etc.
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Perhaps we shall find more recent Middle-Eastern (J) haplotype in South-Eastern Balkans when we receive more precise Serbian and Montenegrin data. 
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What does recent mean to you?
You've seen the maps of distribution of Neolithic and Palaeolithic lineages in the Balkans. Most of the DNA in the Balkans is indigenous.
The local Neolithic Y-lineages don't appear anywhere else, except in small percentages. This means that the local Neolithic ( J,G and E3b ) haplogroup subclades are in the Balkans for the last 8000-12.000 years.
If that's recent to you...
